Experts, plz explain me when f(x) is 1 and f(y) is 1 then f(x+y) is 1, why not 1+1=2 in question 13 of exercise 3.2 ncert.

Dear Student,
Please find below the solution to the asked query:

As, fx+yfx+fy which is similar to sinx+ysinx+sinySo, when fx=1 and fy=1, then fx+y2.Note: We cannot use distribution law in fx+y as here f is not multiplied with x+y rather it is the function of the sum of x and y.i.e. fx+yf×x+y or fx+yfx+fy

Hope this information will clear your doubts about the topic.
Regards

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